Our Materials

Objective Questions based on Indian Constitutions part one

10:10 PM, 11-Jan-2018

 
1.

The Andhra Pradesh Legislative Council was abolished in 1985. In which year it was revived back ?

[A] 2004
[B] 2005
[C] 2006
[D] 2007

 

Correct Answer: D [2007]
2.

Who among the following works as chairman of Kendriya Hindi Samiti ?

[A] Minister of Culture, Government of India
[B] Prime Minister of India
[C] Vice President of India
[D] Minister of State for Official Languages

 

Correct Answer: B [Prime Minister of India]
 
3.

In which states of India the “Foreigners Detection Tribunals ” are active?

[A] Assam
[B] Meghalaya
[C] Tripura
[D] Mizoram

 

Correct Answer: A [Assam]
 
4.

Which of the following amendment bill has extended the nomination of Anglo-Indians to the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies by another 10 years?

[A] 107th Amendment Bill
[B] 108th Amendment Bill
[C] 109th Amendment Bill
[D] 106th Amendment Bill

 

Correct Answer: C [109th Amendment Bill]
 
5.

In which of the following months Quami Ekta Week or National Integration Week is celebrated every year ?

[A] October
[B] November
[C] December
[D] January

 

Correct Answer: B [November]
Explanation:

Quami Ekta Week is observed from November 19-25 every year

6.

What is the total number of the Supreme Court Judges (Including CJI) after the Supreme Court (Number of Judges ) Amendment Act 2008?

[A] 28
[B] 29
[C] 30
[D] 31

 

Correct Answer: D [31]
 
7.

Who among the following is the first woman in India to head an State election commission?

[A] Neela satyanarayan
[B] Sudha Pillai
[C] Rita Sinha
[D] Leena Mehendale

 

Correct Answer: A [Neela satyanarayan]
 
8.

In which year Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act came into force?

[A] 2004
[B] 2006
[C] 2008
[D] 2010

 

Correct Answer: B [2006]
Explanation:

It was passed in 2005 but Ministry of Women and Child Development has issued a notification to bring it into force from 26th October, 06

9.

Which of the following year has been declared as Year of Gram Sabha?

[A] 2008-09
[B] 2009-10
[C] 2010-11
[D] 2011-12

 

 Answer: B [2009-10]
 
10.

If strength of a house is 520 , 20 members are abstaining and a bill is voted in favor by 251 members, this will be an example of ___?

[A] Bill passed by simple majority
[B] Bill passed by effective majority
[C] Bill passed by absolute majority
[D] None of the above

Ans -  A [Bill passed by simple majority]

 

11.

If strength of a house is 520 , 20 members are abstaining and a bill is voted in favor by 251 members, this will be an example of ___?

[A] Bill passed by simple majority
[B] Bill passed by effective majority
[C] Bill passed by absolute majority
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: A [Bill passed by simple majority]
 
12.

Which among the following bills embodies the Budget?

[A] Money bill
[B] Finance Bill
[C] Appropriation Bill
[D] All the above

 

Correct Answer: C [Appropriation Bill]
 
13.

How many states are part of the North eastern Council ?

[A] 5
[B] 6
[C] 7
[D] 8

 

Correct Answer: D [8]
 
14.

The State Reorganization Act 1956 divided the country in 5 Zones. In which Zone Rajasthan was placed?

[A] Northern Zone
[B] Western Zone
[C] Central Zone
[D] South Zone

 

Correct Answer: A [Northern Zone]
 
15.

Who among the following recommends to the President the basis for distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the centre and states?

[A] Finance Minister
[B] RBI
[C] Finance commission
[D] Parliament

 

Correct Answer: C [Finance commission]
 
16.

Which among the following is first Classical Language?

[A] Sanskrit
[B] Konkani
[C] Malayalam
[D] Tamil

 

Correct Answer: D [Tamil]
Explanation:

The new category of classical language was created in 2004 and Tamil was declared first classical language of India

Tamil in 2004,Sanskrit in 2005,Kannada in 2008, and Telugu in 2008

17.

In which year maximum number of languages were added to the Eighth Schedule ?

[A] 1967
[B] 1982
[C] 1997
[D] 2003

 

Correct Answer: D [2003]
Explanation:

1967 (Sindhi), 1992 (Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali), 2003 (Bodo, Maithili, Santhali & Dogri)

so answer is 2003

18.

The contingency fund of India has been placed at the disposal of which among the following authorities?

[A] Comptroller and Auditor General of India
[B] President of India
[C] Parliament of India
[D] Prime Minister of India

 

Correct Answer: B [President of India]
Explanation:

Please note that contingency funds of State Governments are at disposal of Governor.

19.

In context of panchayati Raj in India. The date 24 December 1996 is known for which of the following?

[A] 73rd Constitutional Amendment
[B] Report of Ashok Mehta committee was tabled
[C] Extension to the Scheduled Areas
[D] Constitution of District Planning Committee

 

Correct Answer: C [Extension to the Scheduled Areas]
Explanation:

On  24 December 1996, Panchayats(extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act 1996 came into force

20.

Which among the following is not correctly matched?

[A] Schedule Two – Salaries and Allowances
[B] Schedule Five – Scheduled Areas
[C] Schedule Six – Tribal Areas of Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram
[D] Schedule Ten – panchayats

 

Correct Answer: D [Schedule Ten – panchayats]
Explanation:

Schedule Ten (disqualifications on grounds of defection inserted by 52nd Amendment),

Schedule Eleven (list 29 subjects under panchayats administration control

 

21.

The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the house of people”. Which article states this?

[A] 75(2)
[B] 75(1)
[C] 75(4)
[D] 75(3)

 

Correct Answer: D [75(3)]
Explanation:

Article 75: Other provisions as to Ministers 
(1) The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister 
(2) The Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the President 
(3) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People 
(4) Before a Minister enters upon his office, the President shall administer to him the oaths of office and of secrecy according to the forms set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule 
(5) A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either House of Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister 
(6) The salaries and allowances of Ministers shall be such as Parliament may from time to time by law determine and, until Parliament so determines, shall be as specified in the Second Schedule The Attorney General for India

22.

Supreme court of India has given a landmark guideline spelled out the restrictions on the Union Government’s power to dismiss a state government as per the Article 356 of the Indian Constitution in which of the following famous case?

[A] Minerva Mills Case
[B] S R Bommai Case
[C] Sajjan Singh Case
[D] Golaknath case

 

Correct Answer: B [S R Bommai Case]
 
23.

Whose consent is required for a money bill to originate in the state legislature?

[A] Chief Minister
[B] President
[C] Governor
[D] Finance Minister

 

Correct Answer: C [Governor]
 
24.

Which among the following case is related to the theory of basic structure of constitution as propounded by Supreme court?

[A] Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
[B] Golak nath v. state of Punjab
[C] Gopalan v. State of madras
[D] SR Bommai v Union of India

 

Correct Answer: A [Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala]
 
25.

Which among the following languages was included in the eighth schedule by Constitution (21st) amendment Bill on 10 April 1967?

[A] Assamese
[B] Sindhi
[C] Gujarathi
[D] Konkani

 

Correct Answer: B [Sindhi]
 
26.

January 26, 1957 is known for which of the following?

[A] Second parliamentary term began
[B] Second general elections
[C] Second Five year plan terms started
[D] Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir came into force

 

Correct Answer: D [Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir came into force]
 
27.

In India whose among the following the salary is excepted from Income Tax?

[A] President
[B] Prime minister
[C] All Ministers
[D] Speaker of Lok Sabha

 

Correct Answer: A [President]
 
28.

“A rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be stopped” is known in parliamentary terminology as__?

[A] session
[B] closure
[C] resolution
[D] de jure

 

Correct Answer: B [closure]
 
29.

What is the rank of Union Cabinet Secretary  in the table of Precedence in India?

[A] 5th
[B] 9th
[C] 11th
[D] 15th

 

Correct Answer: C [11th]
 
30.

’Sarbajit Roy versus DERC’ was a famous case in the later half of 2006. This case is particularly related to which of the following?

[A] Fundamental rights
[B] Fundamental duities
[C] Right to Information
[D] Income Tax

 

Correct Answer: C [Right to Information]
 
 
31.

When I respect the ideals and institutions of our constitution and respect national flag and national anthem perform which of the following?

[A] Exercise my right to freedom
[B] Exercise my cultural and educational rights
[C] Exercise my right to constitutional remedies
[D] perform my fundamental duties

 

Correct Answer: D [perform my fundamental duties]
 
32.

Bring Out the wrong statements:

[A] The fundamental rights were finalized by a committee of the constituent assembly headed by Jawahar Lal Nehru
[B] Article 32 empowers an individual to approach directly to supreme court for enforcement of his fundamental rights
[C] Article 17 & 24 are called absolute rights
[D] All are correct

 

Correct Answer: A [The fundamental rights were finalized by a committee of the constituent assembly headed by Jawahar Lal Nehru]
Explanation:

The fundamental rights were finalized by a committee of the constituent assembly headed by Sardar Patel.

33.

Bring out the wrong statements:

[A] The first sitting of the Union parliament was held in 1952
[B] The idea of concurrent list has been borrowed from Australia
[C] Salaries of Judges of Supreme Court are drawn from Consolidated fund of India
[D] All are correct

 

Correct Answer: D [All are correct]
 
34.

How long did the constituent assembly take to frame the constitution?

[A] Approximately 1 year
[B] Approximately 2 years
[C] Approximately 3 years
[D] 6 months

 

Correct Answer: C [Approximately 3 years]
Explanation:

The constituent assembly took 2 years , 11 months and 18 days to frame the constitution

35.

In context of our constitution the date of 13 December 1946 is known for which of the following?

[A] Cabinet Mission Plan
[B] Setting up of Constituent Assembly
[C] First meeting of Constituent Assembly
[D] Objective Resolution was moved

 

Correct Answer: D [Objective Resolution was moved]
Explanation:

The historic Objectives Resolution was moved by Jawahar Lal Nehru on 13 December 1946 and was adopted on 22 January 1947.

36.

Through which of the following a Federal Court was established?

[A] Indian Councils Act 1909
[B] Indian Councils Act 1892
[C] Government of India act 1919
[D] Government of India act 1935

 

Correct Answer: D [Government of India act 1935]
 
37.

Indian Legislature became “bicameral” through which of the following?

[A] The Morley- Minto Reforms
[B] Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
[C] Government of India Act 1935
[D] Government of India Act 1909

 

Correct Answer: B [Montague-Chelmsford Reforms]
 
38.

Bring out the wrongly matched pairs:

[A] Charter Act 1793- Power to Governor General to override his council
[B] Charter Act 1813 – Procedures for the use of Indian revenue
[C] The Indian Council Act 1861- Fifth member added to Viceroy’s executive council
[D] All are correct

 

Correct Answer: D [All are correct]
 
39.

In which year the age for voting rights was reduced from 21 to 18?

[A] 1980
[B] 1982
[C] 1986
[D] 1989

 

Correct Answer: D [1989]
Explanation:

28 March 1989, By Constitution Sixty First Amendment 1989

40.

Which of the following states in India is exempted from reservation for Scheduled Castes in Panchayati Raj institutions?

[A] Rajasthan
[B] Assam
[C] Arunanchal Pradesh
[D] Sikkim

 

Correct Answer: C [Arunanchal Pradesh]
Explanation:

Arunanchal Pradesh by Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000

41.

The power of Judicial review in India lies with the __?

[A] Supreme Court only
[B] High court and Supreme Court
[C] High Court only
[D] Lower courts only

 

Correct Answer: A [Supreme Court only]
 
42.

Which among the following is not correctly matched? (Women Chief Ministers)

[A] Sucheta kriplani – Uttar Pradesh
[B] Nandini Satpaty – Orissa
[C] Sashikala Kadokar – Goa
[D] All are correct

 

Correct Answer: D [All are correct]
 
43.

Which among the following statements is correct ?

[A] A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned and presided by President
[B] A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned and presided by Speaker of the Lok Sabha
[C] A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned by President and presided by Speaker of Lok Sabha
[D] A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned by Speaker of Lok Sabha and presided by President

 

Correct Answer: C [A joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament is summoned by President and presided by Speaker of Lok Sabha]
 
44.

The first non confidence motion was moved in the Lok Sabha in which of the following years?

[A] 1960
[B] 1963
[C] 1965
[D] 1969

 

Correct Answer: B [1963]
 
45.

How many Former Presidents have been awarded “Bharat Ratna ” till now?

[A] 2
[B] 3
[C] 4
[D] 5

 

Correct Answer: D [5]
Explanation:

Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, Rajendra Prasad, Zakir Hussain, A. P. J. Abdul Kalam, Dr. V V Giri,

46.

In the wake of the sarkaria commission report, which state suggested the abolition of the office of the governor?

[A] Karnataka
[B] Andhra Pradesh
[C] Tamilnadu
[D] Kerala

 

Correct Answer: B [Andhra Pradesh]
 
47.

Which article deals with the procedure for amendment of the Indian Constitution?

[A] Article 356
[B] Article 360
[C] Article 365
[D] Article 368

 

Correct Answer: D [Article 368]
 
48.

Consider the following statements and bring out the only wrong statement?

[A] Official language of Jammu & Kashmir is Urdu
[B] Prime Minister is the functional head of the government
[C] Advocate General is the legal advisor to the state government provided by constitution
[D] All are correct

 

Correct Answer: D [All are correct]
 
49.

Which among the following amendments provided for the deletion of article 314 inclusion of a new article 312 A which confers powers on Parliament to vary or revoke by law the conditions of Civil Services ?

[A] Twenty-eighth Amendment Act, 1972
[B] Twenty-fourth Amendment Act, 1971
[C] Twenty-ninth Amendment Act, 1972
[D] Twenty-sixth Amendment Act, 1971

 

Correct Answer: A [Twenty-eighth Amendment Act, 1972]
 
50.

Before 26 November 1949, which among the following was the governing law of India?

[A] The Cabinet Mission Plan
[B] Government of India Act 1935
[C] Government of India Act 1919
[D] Government of India Act 1909

 

Correct Answer: B [Government of India Act 1935]
 
51.

Supreme Court shall be a court of Record and shall have all the powers of such courts including the power to punish for contempt of itself. Which article says this?

[A] Article 126
[B] Article 128
[C] Article 129
[D] Article 131

 

Correct Answer: C [Article 129]
 
52.

Which among the following date was passed by a resolution by Indian National Congress to observe every year as ” Purna Swarajya”?

[A] January 26
[B] August 15
[C] August 30
[D] October 2

 

Correct Answer: A [January 26]
Explanation:

In the Lahore Session 1929, INC passed a resolution under the president ship of Jawaharlal Nehru to observe 26 January every year as Purna Swarajya day

53.

Under which of the following amendments the power of judicial review of the Supreme Court and High courts was restored , which was curtailed by Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976?

[A] Forty-third Amendment Act, 1977
[B] Forty-fifth Amendment Act, 1980
[C] Forty-sixth Amendment Act, 1982
[D] Forty-eighth Amendment Act, 1984

 

Correct Answer: A [Forty-third Amendment Act, 1977]
 
54.

Which among the following Fundamental rights has been most controversial ?

[A] Right to Freedom
[B] Right to property
[C] Right to Freedom of religion
[D] Right to cultural & education Rights

 

Correct Answer: B [Right to property]
 
55.

Who among the following can establish a common high court for two or more states / or Union Territories in India?

[A] President
[B] Supreme court
[C] Governors of the two states
[D] Parliament by The Law

 

Correct Answer: D [Parliament by The Law]
 
56.

Which article of the Indian constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

[A] Article 22
[B] Article 32
[C] Article 35
[D] Article 37

 

Correct Answer: B [Article 32]
 
57.

The interpretation of the Constitution falls within the domain of the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court. At least how many members are required for this bench?

[A] 2
[B] 3
[C] 5
[D] 7

 

Correct Answer: C [5]
 
58.

As amended in January 2009, what is paid salary of the Chief Justice of India ?

[A] Rs. 70,000
[B] Rs. 100, 000
[C] Rs. 80,000
[D] Rs. 120,000

 

Correct Answer: B [Rs. 100, 000]
 
59.

If the post of both the President and the Vice-President falls vacant, the Chief Justice of India discharges the functions of the President. For how many times this has happened in India?

[A] One time only
[B] Two Times 
[C] Three times
[D] zero times

 

Correct Answer: A [One time only]
Explanation:

only one time M. Hidaytulla is the only Chief Justice who acted as President in 1969

60.

Who among the following has been given rights to legislate on residuary subjects?

[A] State government
[B] Central government 
[C] both central and state governments
[D] President

 

Correct Answer: B [Central government ]
Explanation:

Matters which are not included in any of the three lists (Union, State, Concurrent) are known as residuary subjects

61.

Based on the recommendations of which of the following committee/ commissions, Inter-State Council has been set up on 28th May 1990 under article 263 of the Constitution for co-ordination of Inter-State matters?

[A] Sarkaria commission
[B] Khosla Commission
[C] Mukherjee Commission
[D] Kapur Commission

 

Correct Answer: A [Sarkaria commission]
 
62.

In which of the following situations a President can establish a Inter -State Council?

[A] During an emergency
[B] When council of Ministers recommends him / her to do so
[C] When parliament passes a law
[D] When it appears to him / her that it would be serving the public interest

 

Correct Answer: D [When it appears to him / her that it would be serving the public interest]
Explanation:

Article 263 of the Constitution of India provides If at any time it appears to the President that the public interest would be served by the establishment of a Inter State Council

63.

Who among the following can establish an Inter-State Council?

[A] President
[B] Supreme court
[C] Prime minister
[D] Parliament

 

Correct Answer: A [President]
Explanation:

Inter State council is a constitutional body set up on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India by a Presidential Orde

64.

On which of the following dates Indian Constitution was completed ? (Passed by the Constituent Assembly)

[A] January 26, 1950
[B] November 26, 1949
[C] January 26, 1949
[D] January 11, 1949

 

Correct Answer: B [November 26, 1949]
 
65.

Zero hour in the Indian parliament starts at which of the following time?

[A] 10.00 AM
[B] 12.00 PM
[C] 12.00 AM
[D] 2.00 PM

 

Correct Answer: B [12.00 PM]
 
66.

Which among the following term refers to Press ?

[A] First estate
[B] Second estate
[C] Third estate
[D] Fourth estate

 

Correct Answer: D [Fourth estate]
 
67.

Which among the following is the first state in India to set up a directorate of social audit ?

[A] Haryana
[B] Rajasthan
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Kerala

 

Correct Answer: C [Andhra Pradesh]
 
68.

Which among the following taxes is levied by state government only?

[A] Wealth Tax
[B] Estate Duty
[C] Corporation tax
[D] Entertainment Tax

 

Correct Answer: D [Entertainment Tax]
 
69.

 Which of the following commodities are directly affected by the fluctuations in international rates of the crude oil ?

[A] Edible Oils
[B] Cereals
[C] Gold & Silver
[D] Consumer nondurable

 

Correct Answer: C [Gold & Silver]
 
70.

Doing away with which of the following articles was suggested by the Veerappa Moily Commission in its report on Administrative reforms among the other aspects?

[A] Article 305 & 306
[B] Article 310 & 311
[C] Article 308 & 309
[D] Article 307 & 308

 

Correct Answer: B [Article 310 & 311]
 
71.

Foreign Jurisdiction comes under which of the following ?

[A] Union List
[B] State list
[C] Concurrent list
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: A [Union List]
 
72.

Economic and social planning comes under which of the following?

[A] Union List
[B] State List
[C] Concurrent List
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: C [Concurrent List]
 
73.

Which among the following has been provided to the Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers through The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2006?

[A] Legal rights on forest land
[B] Allocation of lands in places out side the forests
[C] Employment in Forest related industries
[D] 1 & 2

 

Correct Answer: A [Legal rights on forest land]
 
74.

Which of the following Constitutional Amendment is related to Right to Education Bill ?

[A] 86th
[B] 90th
[C] 91st
[D] 97th

 

Correct Answer: A [86th]
 
75.

The part IX of the constitution which deals with Panchayats is not applicable to which of the following states?

[A] Nagaland , Meghalaya & Mizoram
[B] Nagaland , Meghalaya, Mizoram & Tribal Areas of Assam
[C] Nagaland , Meghalaya , Mizoram , Tribal Areas of Assam and Tripura
[D] Nagaland , Meghalaya , Mizoram , Tribal Areas of Assam , Tripura & Hill areas of Manipur

 

Correct Answer: D [Nagaland , Meghalaya , Mizoram , Tribal Areas of Assam , Tripura & Hill areas of Manipur]
 
76.

Which among the following act gave rise to Haryana?

[A] The Acquired Territories Merger act 1960
[B] Himachal Pradesh & Bilaspur (new State) act 1954
[C] States Reorganization Act of 1956
[D] Punjab Reorganization Act 1966

 

Correct Answer: D [Punjab Reorganization Act 1966]
 
77.

Which among the following is 28th state of India ?

[A] Goa
[B] Jharkhand
[C] Uttarakhand
[D] Orissa

 

Correct Answer: B [Jharkhand]
 
78.

The Assam Reorganization act 1969 created which of the following State / states?

[A] Meghalya only
[B] Meghalaya & Mizoram
[C] Mizoram only
[D] Arunanchal Pradesh only

 

Correct Answer: A [Meghalya only]
 
79.

Choose the incorrect sentence among the following?

[A] The objective resolution passed by Pt Nehru was what became the Preamble of our constitution
[B] Preamble is enforceable in court of law
[C] Preamble of Indian constitution has been amended only once in 1976
[D] Preamble proves the sovereignty lies ultimately with the Indian people

 

Correct Answer: B [Preamble is enforceable in court of law]
Explanation:

Preamble is not enforceable in court of law . This means that It is not justifiable in nature

80.

Which among the following is not true regarding the 42nd Amendment act 1976 which is also called a Mini Constitution of India?

[A] The amendments were mainly to give effect to the recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee
[B] The words Liberty , Equality & Fraternity were added in the constitution
[C] Fundamental duties of the citizens added
[D] Directive principles of state policy were extended

 

Correct Answer: B [The words Liberty , Equality & Fraternity were added in the constitution]
Explanation:

Secular, Socialist & Integrity were the terms added to the constitution

81.

Which among the following sentences is / are NOT correct ?

[A] The first amendment to the constitution was effected in 1951
[B] Originally Indian constitution had 22 parts, 395 articles and 8 schedules
[C] The first meeting of the constituent assembly was held on 9th December 1946
[D] All are correct

 

Correct Answer: D [All are correct]
 
82.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was not a member of which of the following committees of the constituent assembly ?

[A] Committee on the rules of procedure
[B] Ad Hoc committee on National Flag
[C] Steering Committee
[D] Order of Business Committee

 

Correct Answer: D [Order of Business Committee]
 
83.

If there is a dispute in the presidential election it will be referred whom among the following?

[A] Chief Election Commissioner
[B] Supreme Court
[C] Parliament
[D] Vice President

 

Correct Answer: B [Supreme Court]
 
84.

The following are the members of the electoral college electing the president __

[A] Elected members of Rajya Sabha
[B] Elected members of Rajya Sabha & Lok Sabha
[C] Elected members of the Rajya Sabha , Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
[D] Elected members of Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha , state assemblies and assemblies of Union Territories

 

Correct Answer: C [Elected members of the Rajya Sabha , Lok Sabha and State Assemblies]
 
85.

Which among the following is not a correct requisite qualification for a Presidential candidate ?

[A] Not less than 35 years of Age
[B] Must not hold the office of profit
[C] Must have eligibility to become a member of Lok Sabha
[D] Must be a member of either house of the parliament

 

Correct Answer: D [Must be a member of either house of the parliament]
 
86.

The executive power of the Indian Union lies with which of the following ?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] Council of Ministers
[C] President
[D] Speaker

 

Correct Answer: C [President]
 
87.

We command” is a literal meaning of which of the following ?

[A] Habeas corpus
[B] quo warranto
[C] mandamus
[D] certiorari

 

Correct Answer: C [mandamus]
 
88.

The writ of prohibition issued by Supreme Court or High court is issued against ?

[A] Administrative and judicial authorities
[B] Only Administrative authorities
[C] Judicial or quasi judicial authorities
[D] Govt and administrative authorities

 

Correct Answer: C [Judicial or quasi judicial authorities]
 
89.

The writ of mandamus is available for the purpose of which of the following ?

[A] Enforcement of Fundamental Rights
[B] Compelling a court or Judicial tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refuse to exercise it
[C] Directing a public official or the Government not to enforce a law which is unconstitutional
[D] All are correct

 

Correct Answer: D [All are correct]
 
90.

Which among the following best supported the idea of inclusion of fundamental rights in our constitution?

[A] Simon Commission 1927
[B] Nehru Committee Report 1928
[C] Swaraj Bill 1895
[D] Sapru Committee Report on Constitutional proposals 1945

 

Correct Answer: D [Sapru Committee Report on Constitutional proposals 1945]
 
91.

In which among the following year the PIO card (persons of Indian Origin card ) was launched?

[A] 1997
[B] 1998
[C] 1999
[D] 2000

 

Correct Answer: C [1999]
 
92.

Which among the following Article deals with the rights of citizenships of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside of India?

[A] Article 6
[B] Article 7
[C] Article 8
[D] Article 9

 

Correct Answer: C [Article 8]
 
93.

Which among the following acts provided for a High Commissioner who resided in London, representing India in Great Britain?

[A] Government of India Act 1858
[B] Government of India Act 1909
[C] Government of India Act 1919
[D] Government of India Act 1935

 

Correct Answer: C [Government of India Act 1919]
 
94.

Which among the following sentence is incorrect ?

[A] The members of the council of ministers are individually responsible to the President
[B] The members of councils of Ministers are collectively responsible to the parliament
[C] A vote of no confidence against any minister is taken as a vote of no-confidence against entire council of Ministers
[D] All are correct

 

Correct Answer: D [All are correct]
 
95.

Which among the following is incorrect regarding Money Bill ?

[A] It can be introduced only in Lok Sabha
[B] It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President
[C] The Rajya Sabha is given 1 months time period to make recommendation on a Money Bill
[D] All are correct

 

Correct Answer: C [The Rajya Sabha is given 1 months time period to make recommendation on a Money Bill]
Explanation:

A money bill must be returned to the Lok Sabha within 14 days or the bill is deemed to have passed both houses in the form it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha

96.

Who among the following can be appointed as ad hoc judges of Supreme Court ?

[A] Only Retired Judges of Supreme Court
[B] Only those qualified for appointed as judge of Supreme Court
[C] Only Retired Judges of High Courts
[D] District judges

 

Correct Answer: B [Only those qualified for appointed as judge of Supreme Court]
Explanation:

If there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.

97.

Sir Edwin Montagu, and the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford are related to which of the following ?

[A] Government of India Act 1858
[B] Government of India Act 1909
[C] Government of India Act 1919
[D] Government of India Act 1935

 

Correct Answer: C [Government of India Act 1919]
Explanation:

Government of India Act 1919 was passed by British Parliament to further expand the participation of Indians in the Government of India. Since the act embodied reforms as recommended by a report of Edwin Montagu {Secretary of State for India} and Lord Chelmsford {Viceroy and Governor General}, it is also called as Montague-Chelmsford Reforms or simply Mont-Ford Reforms. The most notable feature of the act was “end of benevolent despotism” and introduction of responsible government in India. 

98.

Introduction of provincial Autonomy is related to which of the following acts?

[A] The Government of India Act, 1858
[B] The Government of India Act, 1909
[C] The Government of India Act, 1919
[D] The Government of India Act, 1935

 

Correct Answer: D [The Government of India Act, 1935]
 
99.

The success of Bardoli Satyagraha gave rise to which one of the greatest leaders of the independence struggle?

[A] Mahatma Gandhi
[B] Sardar Patel
[C] Subhash Chandra Bose
[D] Rajaji

 

Correct Answer: B [Sardar Patel]
 
100.

In which year Andhra Pradesh was Created?

[A] 1950
[B] 1952
[C] 1956
[D] 1960
Correct Answer: C [1956]
Explanation:

The congress in its Jaipur session appointed a three member committee also popularly known as JVP committee after the name of its leaders – Jawaharlal Nehru,Vallabh Bhai Patel and Pattabhai Sitaramaya.The committee rejected language as the bass of reorganization of states.. Potti Sreeramulu, one of the activists demanding the formation of a Telugu-majority state, died on 16 December 1952 after undertaking a fast-unto-death. This resulted in the creation of the first state on linguistic basis for Telugu speaking people called Andhra State on October 1, 1953. It was later reorganized as Andhra Pradesh in 1956

Previous

Latest vacancies

    Our Materials

      Current affairs

        Latest Papers