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Objective Questions based on Indian Constitutions part Three

11:04 PM, 11-Jan-2018

111.

What is the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha ?

[A] 232
[B] 250
[C] 245
[D] 240

 

Correct Answer: B [250]
Explanation:

Rajya Sabha is the upper house of parliament which represents the states and union territories. Its membership is fixed to maximum 250 members of which 238 are elected by the representatives of states and union territories while 12 members are nominated by President on account of their excellence in literature, science, art or social service. The present strength of the Rajya Sabha is 245, of whom 233 are representatives of the States/Union Territories and 12 are nominated by the President.

112.

Who among the following is required to cause to be laid before both houses of parliament in respect of each year financial year a statement of estimated receipts & expenditures of the government?

[A] Finance minister
[B] Prime minister
[C] President
[D] Vice president

 

Correct Answer: C [President]
 
113.

Which among the following is NOT a fundamental duty of a citizen?

[A] Respect for the constitution
[B] Respect for the National Flag 
[C] Respect for the National Anthem
[D] Respect for the government

 

Correct Answer: D [Respect for the government]
 
114.

The uniform civil code which has been recommended in the directive principles is to ensure which of the following?

[A] National Integration
[B] Economic Equality
[C] Fundamental Rights
[D] Fundamental duities

 

Correct Answer: A [National Integration]
 
115.

The fundamental duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution in which year ?

[A] 1970
[B] 1972
[C] 1975
[D] 1976

 

Correct Answer: D [1976]
 
116.

Which among the following sentence is correct ?

[A] Part IX related to Panchayats & Part IX A relates to Municipalities
[B] Part IX A related to Panchayats & Part IX A relates to Municipalities
[C] None of them are correct
[D] Both of them are correct

 

Correct Answer: A [Part IX related to Panchayats & Part IX A relates to Municipalities]
 
117.

Apart from giving constitutional recognition to the Municipalities which amendment lays down that in every state two district Planning Committees shall be constituted ?

[A] 71st Amendment
[B] 72nd Amendment
[C] 73rd Amendment
[D] 74th Amendment

 

Correct Answer: D [74th Amendment]
 
118.

Which of the following committee made a recommendation that election commission should be a three member body ?

[A] Takunde Committee
[B] Ashok Mehta Committee
[C] Jeevan Reddy Committee
[D] JP Committee

 

Correct Answer: A [Takunde Committee]
 
119.

Supreme court ruled that ” the fundamental rights and Directive Principles ” are in fact supplementary to each other and together constitute an integrated scheme”. This is known as which of the following ?

[A] Doctrine of Pith & Substance
[B] Doctrine of Colorable Legislation
[C] Doctrine of Colorable Executive
[D] Doctrine of Harmonization

 

Correct Answer: D [Doctrine of Harmonization]
 
120.

Which among the following is correct regarding Directive Principles?

[A] Positive Injunctions
[B] Negative Injunctions
[C] Justifiable Injunctions
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: A [Positive Injunctions]
 
 
121.

Who among the following said this? ” Directive principles of State Policy are like a cheque on a Bank payable at the convenience of the bank”?

[A] Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
[B] Prof. K T Shah
[C] Dr. B R Ambedkar
[D] KM Munshi

 

Correct Answer: B [Prof. K T Shah]
 
122.

Which among the following does not come under Fundamental Duties of a citizen in India?

[A] To protect and Improve Natural Environment
[B] To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform
[C] To strive towards abolition of untouchability
[D] All are comes under fundamental duities

 

Correct Answer: C [To strive towards abolition of untouchability]
 
123.

Which among the following does not come under Fundamental Duties of a citizen in India?

[A] To protect and Improve Natural Environment
[B] To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform
[C] To strive towards abolition of untouchability
[D] All are comes under fundamental duities

 

Correct Answer: C [To strive towards abolition of untouchability]
 
124.

Protection of wild life comes under which of the following in India?

[A] Fundamental Right
[B] Fundamental Duty
[C] DPSP
[D] Both 2 & 3

 

Correct Answer: D [Both 2 & 3]
 
125.

The Habeas Corpus Act of 1679 was drawn up during the reign of which of the following ?

[A] King Charles I
[B] King Charles II
[C] King William II
[D] King William III

 

Correct Answer: B [King Charles II]
 
126.

The Magna Carta was a charter of Rights granted to the Englishmen during 1215 AD by which of the following ?

[A] King John II
[B] Henry I
[C] Henry II
[D] Hary I

 

Correct Answer: A [King John II]
Explanation:

Magna Carta is a Latin word which in English means Great Charter. It is most important document of England signed on 15 June 1215 at Runnymede alongside the River Thames in the English county of Surrey. It had originated as a peace and truce treaty between King John and a group of rebellious barons within his kingdom. The document had written promises between King John and his subjects mentioning that the king will govern England and deal with its people according to the customs of feudal law

127.

Which among the following is an apex body under Panchayati Raj?

[A] Zila parishad
[B] Panchayat Samiti
[C] Mandal Parishad
[D] Gramsabha

 

Correct Answer: A [Zila parishad]
 
128.

Which among the following committee was appointed by Government of India in 1977 to recommend for improving efficiency of Panchayati Raj institution?

[A] Ashok Mehta Committee
[B] Sarkaria Commission
[C] Tarkunde Committee
[D] Balwant rai committee

 

Correct Answer: A [Ashok Mehta Committee]
Explanation:

In December 1977, the Janta Government appointed a 13 member committee which was headed by Mr. Ashok Mehta. The committee was appointed for following:

  • What are the causes responsible for poor performance of the PRIs?
  • What measures should be taken to improve performance of the PRIs?

The Ashok Mehta committee submitted its report in 1978 and made more than 130 recommendations

129.

The first official language commission was appointed in 1955. Who was the chairman of this commission?

[A] KM Munshi
[B] B. G. Kher
[C] MC Chhagla
[D] Kalekar

 

Correct Answer: B [B. G. Kher]
Explanation:

The first official language commission was appointed in 1955 with B.G. Kher as chairman and it submitted its report in 1956 which was presented to parliament in 1957 and examined by a joint parliamentary committee.

130.

Which article empowers the president of India to appoint a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?

[A] Article 340
[B] Article 347
[C] Article 350 B
[D] Article 353

 

Correct Answer: C [Article 350 B]
Explanation:

Under Article 350B, a special officer for linguistic minorities has been enshrined in the constitution.

  • This officer is to be appointed by the president.
  • Its job is to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities and report to the president.
  • Please note that this report is also one of those reports laid before each house of parliament and sent to the government of the states concerned.
131.

In which of the following years Delimitation Commission was set up ?

[A] 2000
[B] 2002
[C] 2004
[D] 2005

 

Correct Answer: B [2002]
Explanation:

Delimitation means the drawing of boundaries. The boundaries may be domestic, national and International, but the most general use of this term is in context with electoral boundaries. Article 82 (Readjustment after each census) makes provision for delimitation of the electoral boundaries. It is the process of allocation of number of Seats and their demarcation into territories.

Under Article 82, the Parliament by law enacts a Delimitation Act after every census. After coming into force commencement of the Act, the Central Government constitutes a Delimitation Commission. This Delimitation Commission demarcates the boundaries of the Parliamentary Constituencies as per provisions of the Delimitation Act.

 

Delimitation commissions have been set up four times in the past viz. 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002 under Delimitation Commission acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.

132.

To deal with the common problems of Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram a North Eastern Council was set up in which year?

[A] 1965
[B] 1968
[C] 1971
[D] 1975

 

Correct Answer: C [1971]
Explanation:

North Eastern Council is a statutory, advisory body established in 1971 via the North Eastern Council Act, 1971 for three key objectives viz. balanced development of the North Eastern Region; effecting better inter-state coordination; and maintaining security and public order in the region.

The council consists of eight member states of the North Eastern Region, viz., Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura. In 2002, Sikkim became the eighth member state of the Council. The Secretariat (Headquarters) of the Council is located at Shillong, Meghalaya.

133.

Indian lokpal is synonymous to the institution of Ombudsman existing the ___________countries?

[A] Scandinavian countries
[B] Nordic countries
[C] Benelux countries
[D] G-7 countries

 

Correct Answer: A [Scandinavian countries]
 
134.

If certain case required to take a decision regarding constitution of India then which court has power to do so?

[A] Supreme Court Only
[B] Both High Court & Supreme Court
[C] Neither High court nor Supreme Court
[D] High court only

 

Correct Answer: A [Supreme Court Only]
 
135.

The following are called “scheduled areas’ as per Indian constitution?

[A] Tribal inhabited areas located in North East India
[B] Tribal inhabited areas which are located in other parts of India other than North East India
[C] Tribal inhabited areas located all over India including NE states
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: B [Tribal inhabited areas which are located in other parts of India other than North East India]
Explanation:

Tribal inhabited areas which are located in other parts of India than North East India. Tribal areas of the Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are separately dealt with provisions given in 5th schedule

136.

At the time of commencement of Indian constitution, the all states of Union of India were put in four parts A, B, C, D, later reorganized and reduced to 2 categories ‘states and union territories’ in 1956. Which of the following was only one member of D?

[A] Vindhya Pradesh
[B] Bombay
[C] Madras
[D] Andaman & Nicobar Islands

 

Correct Answer: D [Andaman & Nicobar Islands]
 
137.

At the time of commencement of Indian constitution, the all states of Union of India were put in four parts A, B, C, D, later reorganized and reduced to 2 categories ‘states and union territories’ in 1956. Which of the following was only one member of D?

[A] Vindhya Pradesh
[B] Bombay
[C] Madras
[D] Andaman & Nicobar Islands

 

Correct Answer: D [Andaman & Nicobar Islands]
 
138.

Which among the following is not correct regarding the article 352 ?

[A] If national emergency is proclaimed because of war or external aggression It has automatic extension to Jammu & Kashmir
[B] If national emergency is proclaimed on the ground of armed rebellion then it does not automatically extend to Jammu & Kashmir
[C] If national emergency is proclaimed on the ground of armed rebellion then it automatically extends to Jammu & Kashmir
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: C [If national emergency is proclaimed on the ground of armed rebellion then it automatically extends to Jammu & Kashmir]
 
139.

Which of the following states was joined to Dominion of India was signing Instrument of Accession on October 26, 1947?

[A] Hyderabad
[B] Goa
[C] Jammu & Kashmir
[D] Assam

 

Correct Answer: C [Jammu & Kashmir]
Explanation:

Immediately after independence, a major column of armed men from Pakistan had invaded Kashmir and they were nearly successful in capturing Srinagar. Confronted with the chances of losing Kashmir to Pakistan, Maharaja Hari Singh requested help from India. Immediately, Patel’s aid V P Menon arrived in Srinagar and told the maharaja that India could take action only if Kashmir acceded to India. It is widely believed that Maharaja wanted to keep is independence but reluctantly acceded to India due to the grave situation created by the Pakistani invaders. Thus, on October 26, 1947, Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession.

140.

Which among the following state does not have a bicameral legislature?

[A] Maharastra
[B] Bihar
[C] West Bengal
[D] Andhra Pradesh

 

Correct Answer: C [West Bengal]
Explanation:

The 7 states with bicameral legislature are Bihar, Maharastra, Uttar Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

141.

Within their respective spheres, the union and the state legislatures are made supreme and they should not encroach on the sphere reserved for other. This concept is known as which of the following ?

[A] Doctrine of colorable legislation
[B] Doctrine of pith and substance
[C] Doctrine of double effect
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: B [Doctrine of pith and substance]
 
142.

Which of the following were Union Territories before becoming states ?

[A] Himachal Pradesh, & Tripura
[B] Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura
[C] Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Sikkim & Tripura
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: B [Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura]
 
143.

Which of the following states were created in 1987?

[A] Maharastra, Goa & Arunanchal Pradesh
[B] Goa and Arunanchal Pradesh
[C] Goa Only
[D] Arunanchal Pradesh only

 

Correct Answer: B [Goa and Arunanchal Pradesh]
 
144.

The Amindivi islands consist of five islands of which of the Union Territory ?

[A] Andaman & Nicobar
[B] Lakshadweep
[C] Pondicherry
[D] Daman & Diu

 

Correct Answer: B [Lakshadweep]
 
145.

Which are the conditions for acquiring Indian Citizenship?

[A] Domicile and Descent
[B] Domicile, Descent & Registration
[C] Domicile, Decent , Registration and Holding property
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: B [Domicile, Descent & Registration]
Explanation:

Constitution of India did not codify permanent laws for citizenship and put this onus on parliament. Using the powers of article 10 and 11, the parliament enacted Citizenship Act 1955 which has been amended from time to time. This act mentions four ways in which a person may be Indian citizen viz. by birth, by descent, by registration and by naturalization. Citizenship by birth and descent are called natural citizens. 

146.

Due to an excessive number of refugees incoming to India from Sri lanka & Bangladesh, the Citizenship act 1955 was amended and Citizenship by birth was conferred on those who have been born on or after January 26, 1950 and ______?

[A] June 30, 1987
[B] June 30, 1997
[C] January 26, 1987
[D] January 26, 1988

 

Correct Answer: A [June 30, 1987]
 
147.

A persons when decides to make an application to acquire Citizenship of India by registration must have finished his living in India for ___?

[A] 3 years
[B] 5 years
[C] 7 years
[D] 10 years

 

Correct Answer: B [5 years]
 
148.

Which among the following fundamental rights has been deleted by 44th amendment bill ?

[A] right to form associations
[B] right to property
[C] right against exploitation
[D] right to freedom of speech and expression

 

Correct Answer: B [right to property]
Explanation:

By 44th constitutional amendment act in 1978 the right to property was taken away from the category of fundamental rights and made as a legal right. Article 19(1)(f), which guarantees the citizens the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property and article 31 relating to compulsory acquisition of property have been omitted.  It was, however, be ensured that the removal of property from the list of fundamental rights would not affect the right of minorities to establish and administer educational  institutions of their choice.

149.

Which among the following fundamental rights is available to Indian Citizens but not to aliens?

[A] Freedom of expression and speech
[B] Equality before Law
[C] Protection of life & liberty
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: A [Freedom of expression and speech]
 
150.

The reasonableness of the restrictions placed on Fundamental rights is decided by which of the following ?

[A] Parliament
[B] Courts
[C] President
[D] Prime minister

 

Correct Answer: B [Courts]

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